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Walt 03.10.10 at 15:03
John,
Can the items you recently posted to AlgebraFact, regarding the infinite number of primes of form km+1 and similar forms, be used as an alternate proof of the infinity of primes? Or do they already depend on that fact?
John 03.10.10 at 15:13
Yes, I believe that the proof of Dirichlet’s theorem does not assume first that there are infinitely many primes.